All posts by mcqsworld

MCQs on Operating System

MCQs on Operating System

Operating System is System Software which enables users to interrelate with the Hardware.

1. Moving Process from main memory to disk is called 

  1. Scheduling
  2. Caching
  3. Swapping
  4. Spooling 

Ans: C 

2. A loader is 

  1. A program that places programs into memory and prepares them for execution 
  2. A program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine language 
  3. A program that accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program 
  4. Is a program that appears to execute a source program if it were machine language 

Ans: A 

3. Assembler is 

  1. A program that places programs into memory and prepares them for execution 
  2. A program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine language 
  3. A program that accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program 
  4. Is a program that appears to execute a source program if it were machine language 

Ans: B 

4. Real time systems are 

  1. Primarily used on mainframe computers 
  2. Used for monitoring events as they occur 
  3. Used for program analysis 
  4. Used for real-time interactive 

Ans: B

5. When a computer is first turned on or restarted, a special type of absolute loader is executed, called a 

  1. Compile and Go loader  
  2. Boot loader  
  3. Bootstrap loader  
  4. Relating loader 

Ans: C 

6. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function(s) is (are) accomplished by programmer 

  1. Allocation  
  2. Linking  
  3. Both a and b  
  4. Reallocation 

Ans: C 

7. The primary job of the operating system of a computer is to 

  1. Command resources  
  2. Manage resources
  3. Provide utilities  
  4. Be user friendly 

Ans: B 

8. The operating system of a computer serves as a software interface between the user and 

  1. Hardware  
  2. Peripheral  
  3. Memory  
  4. Screen 

Ans: A 

9. The term “operating system” means 

  1. A set of programs which controls computer working 
  2. The way a computer operator works 
  3. Conversion of high level language into machine code 
  4. The way a floppy disk drives operates 

Ans: A 

10. Multiprogramming was made possible by 

  1. input/output units that operate independently of the CPU  
  2. Operating system  
  3. Both a and b  
  4. None of the above 

Ans: C 

11. Which of the following is not a part of operating system? 

  1. supervisor  
  2. Performance monitor  
  3. job-control program  
  4. Input/output control program 

Ans: B

12. A processor 

  1. Is a device that performs a sequence of operations specified by instructions in memory 
  2. Is the device where information is stored 
  3. Is a sequence of instructions 
  4. Is typically characterized by interactive processing and time of the CPU’s time to allow quick response to each other 

Ans: A 

13. Producer consumer problem can be solved using 

  1. Semaphores
  2. Event counters
  3. Monitors
  4. All of the above 

Ans: D 

14. Special software to create a job queue is called a 

  1. Drive
  2. Spooler
  3. Interpreter
  4. Linkage editor 

Ans: B 

15. Thrashing 

  1. Is a natural consequence of virtual memory system 
  2. Can always be avoided by swapping 
  3. Always occurs on large computers 
  4. Can be caused by poor paging algorithms 

Ans: D 

16. Memory management is 

  1. Not used in modern operating system 
  2. Replaced with virtual memory on current system 
  3. Not used on multiprogramming systems 
  4. Critical for even the simplest operating system 

Ans: B 

17. Which is not true about the memory management? 

  1. Virtual memory is used in multi-user system 
  2. Segmentation suffers from external fragmentation 
  3. Paging suffers from internal fragmentation 
  4. Segmented memory can be paged 

Ans: A 

18. In the multiprogramming system, a set of processes is deadlock if each process in the set is waiting for an event to occur that can be initialized only by another process in the set. Which of the following is not one of the four conditions that are necessary for deadlock to occur? 

  1. Nonpreemption  
  2. Process suspension  
  3. Partial assigment of resources  
  4. Circular wait 

Ans: B 

19. Block or Buffer caches are used 

  1. To improve disk performance  
  2. To handle interrupts  
  3. To increase the capacity of main memory  
  4. To speed up main memory read operation 

Ans: A 

20. In virtual memory systems, Dynamic address translation 

  1. Is the hardware necessary to implemented paging 
  2. Stores pages at a specifies location on disk 
  3. Is useless when swapping is used. 
  4. Is part of the operating system paging algorithm 

Ans: A 

NTSE SAT Paper-10 (Social Science)


NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper-10 (Social Science)

Q1: Who is the composer of National Anthem of India?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
(b) Sharat Chandra Chattopadhyay
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Q2: The International Labour Organisation is headquartered at
(a) Washington.
(b) Paris.
(c) Geneva.
(d) Rome.

Q3Bush at War is a book authored by
(a) Mary N. Weaver.
(b) John Grisham.
(c) Jeffrey Archer.
(d) Bob Woodward.

Q4: The leading silk producing state in India is
(a) Karnataka.
(b) West Bengal.
(c) Madhya Pradesh.
(d) Himachal Pradesh.

Q5: ‘Kaizen’ means
(a) restructuring the processes.
(b) error-free production.
(c) continuous improvement in work process.
(d) weakening the weaknesses by strengthening the strengths.

Q6: World Population Day is observed on which of the following dates?
(a) May 1
(b) May 11
(c) July 1
(d) July 11 

Q7: Which of the following correctly describes the three types of justice referred to in the Preamble?
(a) Economic, social and religious
(b) Political, economic and religious
(c) Social, economic and political
(d) Social, religious and political

Q8: SAARC is headquartered at
(a) Jakarta
(b) Bangkok
(c) Kuala Lampur
(d) Kathmandu

Q9: Which among the following countries does not have veto power in the UN Security Council?
(a) France
(b) England
(c) Germany
(d) Russia 

Q10: Where is the headquarters of Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) situated?
(a) Vienna
(b) New York
(c) Abu Dhabi
(d) Kuwait City

Q11: Uber Cup is associated with which of the following games.
(a) Hockey
(b) Football
(c) Table Tennis
(d) Badminton

Q12: Who is regarded as ‘The Father of Economics’?
(a) J. M. Keynes
(b) J. K. Galbraith
(c) Vernon Smith
(d) Adam Smith

Q13: The first person to walk in space is ___.
(a) Neil Armstrong
(b) A. A. Leonov
(c) Yuri Gagarin
(d) Edwin Aldrin

Q14: The number of members nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha is ___.
(a) two
(b) eight
(c) ten
(d) twelve

Q15: Which constitutional amendment is called the ‘Mini Constitution’?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 43rd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 45th Amendment

1: (c) Rabindranath Tagore
2: (c) Geneva
3: (d) Bob Woodward
4: (a) Karnataka.
5: (c) continuous improvement in work process.
6: (d) July 11
7: (c) Social, economic and political
8: (d) Kathmandu
9: (c) Germany
10: (a) Vienna
11: (d) Badminton
12: (d) Adam Smith
13: (c) Yuri Gagarin
14: (d) twelve
15: (a) 42nd Amendment 





NTSE SAT Paper-9 (Science)

NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper-9 (Science)

(Haryana Board)

Q1. Atomic number of sodium is 11 and number of neutrons is 12, then atomic mass will be
(a) 12 
(b) 22 
(c) 11 
(d) 23 

Q2: Which original particle of atom contains negative charge?
(a) On nucleus 
(b) On proton
(c) On neutron 
(d) On electron

Q3. There are nodules in the roots of some plants, found in them are
(a) None of these 
(b) Nitrogen fixation bacteria
(c) Denitrifying bacteria
(d) Ammoniating bacteria

Q4: Which gas is filled in packet-packed snacks like potato chips
(a) Nitrogen 
(b) Oxygen
(c) Neon 
(d) Carbon dioxide

Q5: The formula of Potassium Chlorate is
(a) KCLO 
(b) KCl 
(c) KClO2 
(d) KClO3

Q6. The formula of common salt is

(a) NaCl
(b) KCl
(c) NACL
(d) KClO3

Q7. Fire-extinguishing devices are used to put off fire, while using this which gas comes out

(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen

(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Carbon dioxide

Q8. In which solution gold is soluble

(a) In Aqua-ragia
(b) In acids

(c) In alkalies
(d) In silver nitrate

Q9. Tritium is isotope of which atom

(a) Of Carbon
(b) Of Oxygen

(c) Of Hydrogen
(d) Of Nitrogen

Q10. Which scientist discovered neutron
(a) James Chadwick 
(b) John Dalton
(c) Rutherford 
(d) J. J. Thomson

Q11. The sum of the protons and neutrons, present in the nucleus of any atom, is called
(a) None of these 
(b) Mass number
(c) Atomic number
(d) Valency

Q12. The indicator of atomic number of any element is
(a) E 
(b) Z 
(c) A 
(d) X

Q13. To save soil from erosion is called
(a) Soil pollution 
(b) Soil formation
(c) Soil erosion 
(d) Soil preservation

Q14: Air is a
(a) None of these 
(b) Mixture
(c) Element 
(d) Compound

Q15. Unit of pressure is
(a) Litre 
(b) Newton 
(c) Pascal 
(d) Kilogram wt.

Q16. In how many allotropes is carbon mainly found
(a) Four 
(b) One 
(c) Two 
(d) Three

Q17. Which scientist discovered safety lamp for the safety of miners
(a) Newton 
(b) Sir Humphrey Davy
(c) Archimedes 
(d) Niels Bohr

Q18: In water purification plant which is used to kill bacteria
(a) Potassium permanganate
(b) Salt
(c) Chlorine
(d) Insecticide medicines

Q19: The science, which is used to obtain metal from ore and purify them for various uses, is called
 (a) Process
(b) Metal filth
(c) Metal-work/metallurgy
(d) Metallography

Q20: Acid present in lemon is
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Picric acid
(d) Carbonic acid

Q21: The micro-particle of any element or compound, which is of free existence, is called
(a) Proton
(b) Atom
(c) Particle
(d) Molecule

Q22: Name the scientist who discovered electron
(a) James Chadwick
(b) John Dalton
(c) J. J. Thomson
(d) Rutherford

Q23: The soil, consisting of particles having radius from 0.005 mm to 0.05 mm, is
(a) Concrete
(b) Clay soil
(c) Mud
(d) Sand

Q24: The pH value of alkaline soil is
(a) None of these
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) More than 7

Q25: To grow Xerophytic plants, is suitable
(a) Sand
(b) Mishroh
(c) Alluvial
(d) Glacial

1: (d) 23 
2: (d) On electron
3: (b) Nitrogen fixation bacteria
4: (a) Nitrogen
5: (d) KClO3
6: (a) NaCl
7: (d) Carbon dioxide
8: (a) In Aqua-ragia
9: (c) Of Hydrogen 
10: (a) James Chadwick
11: (b) Mass number
12: (b) Z 
13: (d) Soil preservation
14: (b) Mixture
15: (c) Pascal
16: (a) Four
17: (b) Sir Humphrey Davy
18: (c) Chlorine
19: (c) Metal-work/metallurgy
20: (b) Citric acid
21: (b) Atom
22: (c) J. J. Thomson
23: (b) Clay soil 
24: (d) More than 7
25: (a) Sand


NTSE SAT Paper – 8 (Biology)

NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper-8 (Biology)


NTSE SAT Sample Paper Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT), NTSE SAT Paper Solutions & Answer 

Q1: Chlorophyll is present in which of the following organism?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Protozoa
(c) Fungi
(d) Algae

Q2: Constituents of cell membrane is/are:
(a) Phosphate Proteins
(b) Amino Acids
(c) Phospho-lipid Proteins 
(d) Cellulose

Q3(Bihar SAT1):  The term vaccine is introduce by which scientist?
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Edward Jenner
(c) Alexander Flemming
(d) Robert Hooke

Q4 (NTSE 2010): Which of the following is an example of a single cell that does not function as a full fledged organism? 

(I) White blood cell (WBC)
(II) Amoeba
(III) WBC and Amoeba
(IV) Paramecium

(a). II only
(b). II and IV
(c). I only
(d). III and IV 

Q5: Primary building blocks of a DNA molecule are:
(a) nitrogenous bases, phosphates, and ribose macromolecules
(b) nitrogenous bases, phosphates, and deoxyribose macromolecules
(c) phosphorous bases, nitrogen, and ribose macromolecules.
(d) None of these

Q6(Maharashtra SAT1): _____ energy is converted into chemical energy with the help of chlorophyll.
(a) Light
(b) Potential
(c) Kinetic
(d) Electric

Q7(UP NTSE Stage-1): Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) Oxygen is called vital air (Pranwayu)
(b) Herbivorous depends on plants for food.
(c) Amoeba is a multi-cellular animal
(d) Stomach is a digestive organ.

Q8: Which of the following is responsible for movement of water and dissolved nutrients from the roots upward in the plant.
(a) apical meristem
(b) phloem
(c) xylem
(d) vascular cambium

Q9: Which vitamin deficiency causes cracking of lips at the corners of a human patient? 
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B-2
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D

Q10: The breeding, hatching and rearing of fish is called (a) Apiculture 
(b) Pisciculture 
(c) Sericulture 
(d) Agriculture

Q11 (2010 Stage2)Weeds not only use nutrients from the soil but are alsoI. harmful for some organisms including human beings
II. useful for the crops and harmful for human beings
III. harmful to the crops and some animals
IV. crop specific

Select the alternative which includes all correct statements.
(a) I, III and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c)  I, II and III
(d)  I, II and IV

Q12: We obtain ___________ from  jute, hemp and cotton.(a) Medicine
(b) Food grain
(c) Fibre
(d) Colour

Q13: The photosynthetic symbiont of a lichen is 
(a) legumes
(b) moss.
(c) green algae
(d) cyano bacteria 

Q14: Protein catalysts of chemical reactions in biological organ systems are called 
(a) Enzymes
(b) Hormones
(c) connective fluids
(d) Vitamins

Q15: Pigment present in red blood corpuscle 
(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Xanthophyll
(d) Porphyrin

1.   (d) Algae
2.   (c) Phospho-lipid Proteins
3.   (b) nitrogenous bases, phosphates, and deoxyribose macromolecules
4.   (b) Edward Jenner
5.   (c) I only 
6.   (a) Light
7.   (c) Amoeba is a multi-cellular animal
8.   (c) xylem
9.   (b) Vitamin B-2
10. (b) Pisciculture
11.  (a) I, III and IV
12.  (c) Fibre
13.  (c) green algae  (Hint: Note the word photosynthetic symbiont).
14.  (a) Enzymes
15.  (a) Haemoglobin


NTSE SAT Paper – 7 (Geography)

NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper-7 (Geography)


Q1Chilka is the name of:
   a. a lake in the eastern coast of India.
   b. the mountain in the Himalayas
   c. a river in Maharashtra
   d. an industrial town in Jharkhand.

Q2: Which Indian state tops in hosiery and woolen goods in India:
  a. Karnataka
  b. Bihar
  c. Punjab
  d. Maharashtra

Q3: Bhubaneswar, capital of Orissa is famous for its:
   a. Oil Refinery
   b. shipping industry
   c. space research centre
   d. famous lingaraja temple.

Q4: The crop sown in the commencement of Monsoon season are
   a. kharif crops
   b. rabi crops
   c. zayad crops
   d. none of these

Q5: Which of the following groups constitutes the basic rock forms?
    a. Sandy, Igneous, Metamorphic
    b. Igneous, Sedimentary, Metamorphic
    c. Lignite, Volcanic, Sedimentary
    d. Sandy, Volcanic, Igneous

Q6: Nepanagar in Madhya Pradesh is famous for which of the following industry?
    a. Jute
    b. Textiles
    c. Rail coach
    d. Newsprint

Q7: The narrow band of land, water and air where all kinds of life is possible is known as:
     a. Atmosphere
     b. Biosphere
     c. Lithosphere
     d. Hydrosphere

Q8: Natural Rubber production is dominated by
      a. Western Europe
      b. USA
      c. South East Asia
      d. Latin America

Q9: Petroleum is found in 
      a. Sedimantry Rocks
      b. Metamorphic Rocks
      c. Igneous Rocks
      d. Lateral Rocks

Q10: Tropic of Cancer passes through which state?
      a. Madhya Pradesh
      b. Uttar Pradesh
      c. Maharashtra
      d. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: 1-a   2-c   3-d     4-a     5-b    6-d   7-b   8-c   9-a  10-a



NTSE SAT Paper – 6 (Social Studies)

NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper-6 (Social Studies)


1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.

2. How many permanent members are there in UN Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six

3. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.

4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the 
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.

5. Who is called the ‘Father of History’? 
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny

6. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor? 
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.

7. For Rajya Sabha, how many members are nominated by President 
(a) 7
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 15

8. Chankya was the chief adviser of which ruler? 
(a) Ashok
(b) Harshvardhan
(c) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Kanishka

9. Akbar’s tomb was located at …
(a) Delhi
(b) Agra
(c) Fatehpur Sikri
(d) Sikandra

10. Mansabdari System was introduced by ….
(a) Akbar
(b) Sher Shah
(c) Humanyun
(d) Jahangir

1 (d) abolition of untouchability
2 (c) Five
3 (a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau. (Hint: Read French Revolution Class 9 – NCERT)
4 (d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
5 (b) Herodotus
6 (b) Chief Minister
7 (c) 12
8 (c) Chandragupta Maurya
9 (d) Sikandra
10 (a) Akbar



NTSE SAT Paper – 5 (Civics)

NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper-5 (Civics)



Q1: Adult suffrage is the basis of

a. Democracy    

b. Dictatorship       

c. Autocracy     

d. Communism


Q2: The Preamble to the Constitution includes all except

       a. Adult Franchise             b. Equality of status

       c. Fraternity                       d. Justice


Q3: Dictatorship is a government in which

       a. The dictator is tolerant of any opposing group

       b. The entire power of the government is held by a single person

       c. There is freedom of speech and Press

       d. People can choose new leader by vote.


Q4: Secularism means

      a. Suppression of all religions

      b. Freedom of worship to minorities

      c. A system of political and social philosophy that does not favour any particular religious faith

      d. Separation of religion from State


Q5: The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by

      a. Lok Sabha       b. Constitutional Amendment       

      c. President        d. None of these


Q6: What is ‘zero hour’?

       a. When the proposals of the opposition are considered

       b. When the matters of utmost importance are raised

       c. When a money bill is introduced in the Lok sabha

       d. Interval between the morning and the evening sessions


Q7: Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is

      a. 30 years        b. 25 years       c. 35 years      d. 21 years


Q8: The President of India can be removed from his office by the

     a. Prime Minister

     b. Lok Sabha

     c. Chief Justice of India

     d. Parliament


Q9: In which of the following states was the Panchayati Raj system first introduced?

      a. Gujarat       b. Uttar Pradesh       c. Punjab       d. Rajasthan   



Q10: Who is the ex-officious chairman of Rajya Sabha?

a. President      

b. Vice President     

c. Home Minister     

d. Leader of opposition



Answers:  1-a     2-a    3-b      4-c    5-d     6-b    7-b   8-d   9-d   10-b