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NTSE SAT Paper – 4 (Books and Authors)

NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper-4 (Books and Authors)

Q1. “Discovery of India” is 
   a. a biography of Mahatma Gandhi
   b. an autobiography of Jawah Lal Nehru
   c. a biography of Indira Gandhi
   d. history book written by Jawahar Lal Nehru

Q2: Who wrote ‘Artha Shastra’?
   a. Kautaliya
   b. Banbhatt
   c. Vatsayan
   d. Vagabhatt

Q3: Panchtantra was written by
   a. Ved Vyas
   b. Valmiki
   c. Vishnu Sharma
   d. Tulsidas

Q4: Meghdoot was authored by
   a. Kalidas
   b. Banbhatt
   c. Vishnu Dutt
   d. Kabirdas

Q5: Who is the author the book “Origin of Species”?
    a. Karl Mark
    b. Thomas Edison
    c. Charles Darwin
    d. Leo Tolstoy

Q6: Who wrote “Rajtarangini”?
   a. Kalhana
   b. Kalidas
   c. Charak
   d. Harshvardhan

Q7: Who is the author of “Anand Matha”
   a. Rabindra Nath Tagore
   b. Swami Vivekananda
   c. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
   d. Chitranjan Das

Q8. Name the author who created fictional town of Malgudi
  a. R. K. Narayan
  b. R. K. Laxman
  c. S R Radhakrishnan
  d. O. P. Nair

Q9: Who is known as “Father of Modern Hindi”?
  a. Munshi Premchand
  b. Bhartendu Harshchandra
  c. Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
  d. Harivansh Rai Bachchan

Q10: Sursagar is compoed by whom
  a. Kabirdas
  b. Tulsidas
  c. Surdas
  d. Ravidas

Q11: Who is the author of “The Jungle Book”?
  a. Rudyard Kripling
  b. J. K. Rowling
  c. Charles Dickens
  d. R. K. Narayan

Q12: ‘India Wins Freedom’  is wriiten by
  a. Mahatma Gandhi
  b. Indira Gandhi
  c. Maulana Azad
  d. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answers: 1-d   2-a   3-c   4-a   5-c   6-a    7-c   8-a   9-b  10-c   11-a   12-c

 

 


 

NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper -3 (Maths)

NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper -3 (Maths)

 


Q1: The sides of a right triangle are a, a+d, a+2d with a and d both positive. What is the value of ratio a:d ?
(a) 1: 3
(b) 1:4
(c) 2:1
(d) 3:1

Q2: In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs was 14 more than twice the number of heads. the number of cows is:
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 12
(d) 14

Q3: Each edge of cube is increased by 50%. The percent increase in surface area of the cube will be:
(a) 50
(b) 125
(c) 150
(d) 300

Q4: Evaluate $(0.000343)^\frac{1}{3}$
(a) 7/100
(b) 100/7
(c) 7/10
(d) 10/7

Q5: A student was asked to multiply a given number by 4/5. By mistake he divided it by 4/5. His answer was 36 more than the correct answer.  Find the given number.
(a) 80
(b) 60
(c) 36
(d) 63

Q6: A number is divisible by 3, if
(a) the last digit is 3
(b) the last digit is 6
(c) the last two digits are 3
(d) sum of digits is divisible by 3

Q7: A number lies between 1000 and 2000. On division by 2,3,4,5,6, 7 and 8 it leaves remainders 1,2,3,4,5,6 and 7 respectively. The number is:
(a) 1876
(b) 1778
(c) 1679
(d) 1654

Q8: 1400 men in a fortress have provisions for 28 days. After 3 days, 400 men leave the fortress. How long will the food last now?
(a) 35 days
(b) 32 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 28 days

Q9: In a parallelogram ABCD the ratio between angles $\angle A$ and $\angle B$ is 1:2. Find the $\angle A$ ?
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 90
(d) 180

Q10: The ratio of the volumes of cylinder and cone of equal radii and height is:
(a) 1:3
(b) 3:1
(c) 1:1
(d) 1:2

Answers:


1-d (Hint apply Pythagoras theorem and factorize the equation)
2-b
3-b (Hint: surface area of cube is $6d^2$
4-a
5-a
6-d
7-c (Hint: LCM of divisors is 840, hence 840x-1 represent the number. Find x. )
8-a
9-a
10-b

NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper -2

NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper -2

 

 

1. In the Eisenstein equation E=mc², c denotes to

    a. velocity of sound

    b. velocity of light.

    c. wavelength of light

    d. a constant factor.

 

2. Bamboo is an example of 

    a. herb

    b. shrub

    c. tree

    d. giant tropical grass

 

3. Which of the following is a method to prevent soil erosion? 

    a. plant more tree

    b. making dams

    c. cutting trees

    d. none of these

 

4. Besides nitrogen and phosphorus, the element commonly present in artificial fertilizer is:

    a. barium

    b. calcium

    c. pottasium

    d. sodium


 

5. Acid rain is caused due to pollution of environment by:

    a. ozone and carbon dioxide

    b. carbon dioxide and nitrogen

    c. carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

    d. nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

 

6. The number of chromosomes present in humans is

    a. 23

    b. 43

    c. 46

    d. 48

 

7. On which of the following principles does a videotape used to record motion pictures?

    a. Photographic film

    b. Octoelctron recording

    c. Magnetic tape

    d. plastic tape.

 

8. The cheapest source of energy is:

    a. nuclear energy

    b. thermal energy

    c. solar energy

    d. hydroelectric energy

 

9. Recoil of gun is an example of 

    a. conservation of energy

    b. conservation of mass

    c. conservation of linear momentum

    d. none of these

 

10. The apparatus sphygmomanometer is used to measure

    a. water pressure

    b. blood pressure

    c. atmospheric pressure

    d. none of these

11. Which of the following vitamin is associated with rickets?
    a. Vitamin A
    b. Vitamin D
    c. Vitamin E
    d. Vitamin K


12. Radioactivity was discovered by:
    a. Madam Curie
    b. Rutherford
    c. Roentgen
    d. Henry Bacquerel


13. The element which has the same atomic number and atomic weight is:
    a. Hydrogen
    b. Helium
    c. Nitrogen
    d. Oxygen

14. Local time of a place depends upon
      a. latitude
      b. sunrise
      c. both (a) and (b)
      d. none of these

15. Which of the following tides occur when the sun and the moon are in line with the earth?
      a. Ebb tide
      b. Neap tide
      c. Spring tide
      d. none of these

Answers: 1-b   2-d   3-a   4-c   5-d  6-c   7-c    8-c   9-c  10-b  11-b   12-d   13-a  14-b  15-c

NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper – 1

NTSE SAT Sample Question Paper – 1

 

1. The SI unit of electric current is: 
   a. ampere 
    b. candela
    c. mole 

    d. none of these

2. A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he walks towards the shore the boat will
    a. move away from the shore
    b. remain stationary
    c. move towards the shore
    d. sink

3. A body is weighed at the poles and then at the equator. The weight
    a. at the equator will be greater than at the poles 
    b. at the poles will be greater than at the equator
    c. at the poles will be equal to the weight at the equator
    d. none of these 

 4. The temperature of water at the bottom of a large waterfall is higher than that of the water at the top, because 
     a. the falling water absorbs heat from the sum
     b. the KE of the falling water is converted into heat
     c. the water at the bottom has greater PE
     d. rocks on the bed of the river give out heat


5. The chemical formula for Plaster of Paris is:
     a. $\left( CaSO_{4} \right)_2 \cdot H_2O$
     b. $CaSO_{4}\cdot H_2O$
     c. $CaSO_{4}\cdot 2H_2O$ 
     d. $CaSO_{4}$

6. Which of the following is the hardest substance known ?
    a. Graphite
    b. Iron
    c. Diamond
    d. coke

7. Which of the following elements is not present in stainless steel ?
    a.  Iron
    b. Tungsten
    c. Chromium
    d. Nickel

8. Rearing of bees is
    a. horticulture
    b. apiary
    c. apiculture
    d. poultry

9.  Nitrogen fixation is performed by
     a. Green algae and fungi
     b. Legumes and cereals
     c. Ferns and cycads
     d. Blue green algae & bacteria

10. LPG mainly contains
      a. Methane
      b. $H_2$, Methane and Ethane
      c. Methane & Ethane
      d. Butane and Isobutane

11. Non-metals are generally bad conductors of electricity. However, graphite is a good conductor of  electricity because it
      a. is an allotrope of carbon.
      b. has loosely bound electrons.
      c. is brittle.
      d. forms basic oxide.

12.  Metals are generally (i) good conductors of heat and electricity, (ii) lustrous, (iii) hard and (iv) ductile. Mercury has been categorized as metal because of which properties:
     a, (ii) and (iii)
     b. (ii) and (iv)
     c. (i) and (ii)
     d. (i) and (iv)

13. Which of the cells are likely to possess the highest numbers of mitochondria?
    a. hair cells
    b. skin surface cells
    c. red blood cells
    d. muscle cells

14. Which of the cells are likely to show lysosomal activity?
     a. gland cells
     b. skin cells
     c. damaged cells
     d. hair cells

15. Mass of neutron is
     a. 1.00727 amu
     b. 0.00054 amu
     c. 1.00867 amu
     d. 10.0867 amu  

Answers: 1-a     2-a     3-b    4-c   5-a     6-c     7-b    8-c   9-d  10-d 
               11-b  12-c   13-d   14-c  15-c

 

SBI Clerk Recruitment 2014 – 5092 Clerk posts

SBI Clerk Recruitment 2014 – 5092 Clerk posts 

SBI Clerk Recruitment 2014

SBI Clerk Recruitment 2014 – Application Form for 5092 Clerk posts 2014 


Apply online mode on SBI web portal site at – www.sbi.co.in.

The Much awaited SBI Clerk 2014 Vacancy is out. The State bank of India has as of late declared a recruitment notice of total 5092 Vacant posts of Assistants Clerical Cadre posts in their Department. Presently they welcome to fill online provision structure through online mode on fundamental authority site entryway at www.sbi.co.in So all aspirants who are intrigued and qualified and who need to work with this division those are request this empty posts on the same site. It is worth mentioning here that SBI is No. 1 destination for all Banking Job Seekers. So, if you are a bank Job Seeker, then this Clerk vacancy by SBI is sure to excite you. But we advise to keep your excitement up-to a level and Don't get overexcited because SBI Clerk Exam is not an easy nut to crack, as the No. of people who apply for SBI Clerk 5000 vacancy will be huge It is expected that close to 5 million (50 Lakh) people will apply for these Clerical Jobs in SBI.

Start Date – Apply Online On 26th May, 2014  (SBI Clerk Recruitment 2014​)

According to the SBI recruitment Notification they are going to top off different empty posts in their specialization. Countless are every day looking employment on web. On the off chance that you are one of them then you are on right website page her we keep up all data related this SBI Recruitment 2014. All Aspirant who are work with this association they can seek this through online mode provision structure. what’s more we likewise keep up the all helpful rule and essential subtle elements which are have to seek this post, so simply read painstakingly before you request this post, for example, name of posts, age limit, education capability , how to apply, requisition expense and other point of interest describe Below.

Pay-Scale: Applicants who will be selected as Clerks in SBI will get salary approximately as INR 17000/-

SBI Clerk Recruitment Detail 2014

Name of Organization: – State bank of India
Position: – Assistants Clerical Cadre posts
Total Number of Post: – 5092 Vacancies
Official Website: – www.sbi.co.in
Job Location: – Across India

Eligibility Criteria:-   SBI Clerk Recruitment 2014​
Age Limitation: – Candidate age Minimum 20 years & Maximum Age 28 years (as on 01.05.2014). Hopefuls conceived between 02.05.1986 and 01.05.1994 (both days comprehensive) is just qualified to apply.


Education Qualification: – Applicants must have Degree (Graduation level) from a perceived college, or any proportionate capability perceived thusly by the Central/State Government. The individuals who are in the last year of Graduation/Semester might additionally apply temporarily subject to the condition that, if called for meeting, they will need to process verification of having passed the Graduation Examination at the latest 31.08.2014.


Selection Procedure: – All qualified applicants ought to apply on-line before the last date for enlistment of requisition. a Final determination will be made on the premise of execution in the online test and meeting taken together. Just fulfilling the qualification standards does not qualify an applicant for be called for test or meeting.


Requisition Fee: – Candidate needs to pay SC/ST/PWD/XS INR. 100/ – and General and OBC category competitor need to pay: – INR. 450/ – and Fee once deposited will neither be refunded nor be adjusted against any future recruitment projects. The fee sent through Indian Postal Order, Bank Drafts, Cheque, Currency Notes etc. will not be accepted. Such applications will be treated as without fee and will be summarily reject dismiss.

Important Date Should Be Reminded:-

•    Online Registration Start From :- 26 May, 2014
•    Last Date for Online Registration Form: – 14 June, 2014.
•    Payment of Application Fee (Online): 26 May, 2014.
•    Opening Date for Payment of Application (Offline): 28-May, 2014
•    Last Date for Payment of Application (Online): 14 May, 2014
•    Last Date for Payment of Application (Offline): 17 June, 2014
•    Date of Online Examination :- June 2014

Step by step instructions to Apply:

•    First visit the official website at – www.sbi.co.in.
•    Click on Recruitment Section and click on ‘Apply Online’.
•    Fill the Application Form according to Guidelines and Click on ‘Submit Application’.
•    Take the print out of Final Registration slip and bring at the time of meeting.

Click here to visit official website
Click here to check official Notification

 

Click here to Apply Online Application Form 

Online Application:  All applicants need to apply only through the Online Mode and No offline application is accepted. Follow the steps given below for submitting the online application.

1) Log on to SBI Official Website @ www.sbi.co.in
2) The Find the Link that activates the online application form.
3) Fill the Form, carefully by following the On-Screen Instructions.
4) Then Choose your Form of Payment and Upload your Scanned Photo and Signature.
5) Once the form, is submitted, take note of Registration No and Password and don’t forget to take the Print-Out of the System Generated Application form.

Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY)

Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY)

Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY)

 

The Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY) originated and subsidized by the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India, is an on-going National Program of Communions in Basic Sciences. The Indian Government to entice specially and highly inspired students for following basic science courses and exploration career in science.

The aim of the KVPY is to detect and inspire talented and interested students to pursue career in research.

The selection of students is complete from those studying in XI standard to 1st year in any undergraduate Program in Basic Sciences specifically B.Sc. /B.S. /B.Stat. /B.Math. /Int. M.Sc. /M.S. in Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology having ability for scientific research. Special groups / committees are set up at IISc, to screen the submissions and conduct an aptitude test at various centers in the country.

On the performance in the aptitude test, qualified students are called for an interview which is the final stage of the selection process. In the final selection aptitude test and interview marks both are important.

The Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY) advertisement published in all the national dailies generally on the Technology Day (May 11) along with the Second Sunday of July every year.

KVPY Applications are online and offline applications are available till the date given on advertisement published in every year. Candidates who fulfill the prescribed eligibility criteria will have to attempt the examinations on examination date.

Eligibility criteria –

For Stream SA: 

·         Students of Class XI in Science with a minimum of 80% in combined in Mathematics and Science in Class X board exams (70% for SC/ST/PH).

For Stream SX: 

·         Students of Class XII in Science with a minimum of 80% in combined in Mathematics and Science in Class X board exams (70% for SC/ST/PH) OR candidates in their second year of study in Cambridge International Examination Board.

·         The Students necessities take admissions to an undergraduate course in Basic Sciences like Physics/Chemistry/Mathematics & Biology leading to B.Sc. /B.S. /B.Stat. /B.Math. /Int. M.Sc./M.S. in the academic year.

·         They need to secure a minimum of 60% in Mathematics  & Science Subjects Class XII (50% for SC/ST/PH)

 

For Stream SB: 

·         Candidates in the first year of study in basic sciences ( B.Sc./B.S./B.Stat./B.Math./Int. M.Sc./M.S.) with a minimum of 60% in Mathematics & Science Subjects Class XII board exams (50% for SC/ST/PH)

 

KVPY Paper Pattern:

For SA:

·         Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology

·         One mark Questions 15 Nos.

·         Two mark Questions 05 Nos.

 
For SX/SB

·         Subjects to cover: Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology

·         One mark Questions 20 Nos.

·         Two mark Questions 10 Nos.

Website:  http://www.kvpy.org.in

Contact Info:

The Convener
Kishore Vaigyanik  Protsahan Yojana (KVPY)

Indian Institute of Science
Bangalore 560 012

Telephone: (080) 22932975 / 76, 23601008, 65474150 

Fax: (080) 2360 1215 

Computer Science Sample Paper 2

Computer Science Sample Paper 2

 

Computer Science questions and answers with explanation for interview, competitive examination and entrance test. It's contains are more AGRE test in computer science as well as GATE, PSC, NET and other similar exams.

 

1.    . The line graph L(G) of a simple graph G is defined as follows:

• There is exactly one vertex v(e) in L(G) for each edge e in G.

• For any two edges e and e' in GL(G) has an edge between v(e) and v(e'), if and only if e and e' are incident with the same vertex in G.

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

(P) The line graph of a cycle is a cycle.

(Q) The line graph of a clique is a clique.

(R) The line graph of a planar graph is planar.

(S) The line graph of a tree is a tree.

  • (A) P only                      (B) P and R only
  • (C) R only                     (D) P, Q and S only

Answer: A

 

2.       What is the logical translation of the following statement ?

"None of my friends are perfect."

  • (A) x(F(x)˄¬P(x))        (B) x(¬F(x)˄P(x))
  • (C) x(¬F(x)˄¬P(x))     (D) ¬x(F(x)˄P(x))

Answer: D

 

3.       Consider the following sequence of micro–operations.

MBR←PC

MAR←X

PC←Y

Memory←MBR

Which one of the following is a possible operation performed by this sequence ?

  • (A) Instruction fetch   
  • (B) Operand fetch
  • (C) Conditional branch         
  • (D) Initiation of interrupt service

Answer: D

 

4.       Consider a hard disk with 16 recording surfaces (0−15) having 16384 cylinders (0−16383) and each cylinder contains 64 sectors (0−63). Data storage capacity in each sector is 512 bytes. Data are organized cylinder–wise and the addressing format is <cylinder no., surface no., sector no.>. A file of size 42797 KB is stored in the disk and the starting disk location of the file is <1200, 9, 40>. What is the cylinder number of the last sector of the file, if it is stored in a contiguous manner?

  • (A) 1281           
  • (B) 1282        
  • (C) 1283        
  • (D) 1284

Answer: D

 

5.    The number of elements that can be sorted in Θ(logn) time using heap sort is

  • (A) Θ(1)                                 (B) Θ(√logn) 
  • (C) Θ(logn/loglogn)                 (D) Θ(logn)

Answer: C

 

6.       Consider the following function:

int unknown int n {

int i, j, k=0;

for(i=n/2; i≤n; i++)

for(j=2; j≤n; j=j*2)

k=k+n/2;

return (k);

}

The return value of the function is

  • (A) Θ(n2)           
  • (B) Θ(n2logn)          
  • (C) Θ(n3)           
  • (D) Θ(n3logn)

Answer: B

 

7.       Consider the following languages.

L1={0p1q0r|p,q,r≥0}

L2={0p1q0r|p,q,r≥0,pr}

Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

  • (A) L2 is context–free
  • (B) L1∩L2 is context–free
  • (C) Complement of L2 is recursive
  • (D) Complement of L1 is context–free but not regular

Answer: D

 

8.       Consider the DFA A given below.

Which of the following are FALSE?

1. Complement of L(A) is context–free

2. L(A)=L((11*0+0)(0+1)*0*1*)

3. For the language accepted by AA is the minimal DFA.

4. A accepts all strings over {0, 1} of length at least 2.

  • (A) 1 and 3 only           (B) 2 and 4 only
  • (C) 2 and 3 only           (D) 3 and 4 only

Answer: D

 

9.       A shared variable x, initialized to zero, is operated on by four concurrent processes WXYZ as follows. Each of the processes W and X reads x from memory, increments by one, stores it to memory, and then terminates. Each of the processes Y and Z reads x from memory, decrements by two, stores it to memory, and then terminates. Each process before reading x invokes the Poperation (i.e., wait) on a counting semaphore S and invokes the V operation (i.e., signal) on the semaphore S after storing x to memory. Semaphore S is initialized to two. What is the maximum possible value of x after all processes complete execution?

  • (A) –2    
  • (B) –1            
  • (C) 1  
  • (D) 2

Answer: D

 

10.       Consider the following relational schema.

Students(rollno: integer, sname: string)

Courses(courseno: integer, cname: string)

Registration(rollno: integer, courseno: integer, percent: real)

Which of the following queries are equivalent to this query in English?

"Find the distinct names of all students who score more than 90% in the course numbered 107"

(I) SELECT DISTINCT S.sname

FROM Students as S, Registration as R

WHERE R.rollno=S.rollno AND R.Courseno=107 AND R.percent>90

(II) ∏snamecourseno=107percent>90(RegistrationStudents))

(III) {T|S ϵ Students, R ϵ Registration(S.rollno=R.rollno

R.courseno=107R.percent>90T.sname=S.name)}

(IV) {<SN>|SRRP(<SR,SN>ϵStudents<SR,107,RP>ϵRegistrationRP>90)}

  • (A) I, II, III and IV          
  • (B) I, II and III only
  • (C) I, II and IV only      
  • (D) II, III and IV only

Answer: A

 

11.       Determine the maximum length of cable (in km) for transmitting data at a rate of 500 Mbps in an Ethernet LAN with frames of size 10,000 bits. Assume the signal speed in the cable to be 2,00,000 km/s

  • (A) 1      
  • (B) 2   
  • (C) 2.5          
  • (D) 5

Answer: B

 

12.       In an IPv4 datagram, the M bit is 0, the value of HLEN is 10, the value of total length is 400 and the fragment offset value is 300. The position of the datagram, the sequence numbers of the first and the last bytes of the payload, respectively are

  • (A) Last fragment, 2400 and 2789
  • (B) First fragment, 2400 and 2759
  • (C) Last fragment, 2400 and 2759
  • (D) Middle fragment, 300 and 689

Answer: C

 

13.       The following figure represents access graphs of two modules M1 and M2. The filled circles represent methods and the unfilled circles represent attributes. If method m is moved to module M2 keeping the attributes where they are, what can we say about the average cohesion and coupling between modules in the system of two modules?

  • (A) There is no change.
  • (B) Average cohesion goes up but coupling is reduced
  • (C) Average cohesion goes down and coupling also reduces
  • (D) Average cohesion and coupling increase

Answer: A

 

14.       A certain computation generates two arrays a and b such that a[i]=f(i) for 0≤i

 

Process X;                                Process Y;

private i;                                     private i;

for (i=0; i<n; i++) {                    for (i=0; i<n; i++) {

a[i]=f(i);                                               EntryY(R, S);

ExitX(R, S);                                       b[i]=g(a[i]);

}                                                  }

 

Which one of the following represents the CORRECT implementations of ExitX and EntryY ?

(A) ExitX R, S {

P(R);

V(S);

}

EntryY R, S {

P(S);

V(R);

}

(B) ExitX R, S {

V(R);

V(S);

}

EntryY R, S {

P(R);

P(S);

}

(C) ExitX R, S {

P(S);

V(R);

}

EntryY R, S {

V(S);

P(R);

}

(D) ExitX R, S {

V(R);

P(S);

}

EntryY R, S {

V(S);

P(R);

}

Answer: C

 

15.    Consider the following two sets of LR(1) items of an LR(1) grammar

X→c.X, c/d    X→c.X, $

X→.cX, c/d    X→.cX, $

X→.d, c/d       X→.d, $

Which of the following statements related to merging of the two sets in the corresponding LALRparser is/are FALSE?

1. Cannot be merged since look aheads are different

2. Can be merged but will result in S–R conflict

3. Can be merged but will result in R–R conflict

4. Cannot be merged since goto on c will lead to two different sets

  • (A) 1 only                      (B) 2 only
  • (C) 1 and 4 only           (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

 

16.       Which of the following is/are undecidable?

1. G is a CFG. Is L(G)=Φ?

2. G is a CFG. IS L(G)=∑* ?

3. M is a Turning machine. Is L(M) regular?

4. A is a DFA and N is a NFA. Is L(A)=L(N) ?

  • (A) 3 only                                 
  • (B) 3 and 4 only
  • (C) 1, 2 and 3 only      
  • (D) 2 and 3 only

Answer: D

17.       What is the return value of f(p,p) if the value of p is initialized to 5 before the call? Note that the first parameter is passed by reference, whereas the second parameter is passed by value.

int f (int &x, int c) {

c=c-1;

if (c==0) return 1;

x=x+1;

return f(x,c)*x;

}

(A) 3024            (B) 6561        

(C) 55440          (D) 161051

Answer: Marks to All

 

18.       The preorder traversal sequence of a binary search tree is 30, 20, 10, 15, 25, 23, 39, 35, 42. Which one of the following is the postorder traversal sequence of the same tree?

  • (A) 10,20,15,23,25,35,42,39,30
  • (B) 15,10,25,23,20,42,35,39,30
  • (C) 15,20,10,23,25,42,35,39,30
  • (D) 15,10,23,25,20,35,42,39,30

Answer: D

 

19.       Consider the following operation along with Enqueue and Dequeue operations on queues, where kis a global parameter.

MultiDequeue(Q) {

m=k

while(Q is not empty) and (m>0) {

Dequeue(Q)

m=m-1

}

}

What is the worst case time complexity of a sequence of n queue operations on an initially empty queue?

  • (A) Θ(n)            (B) Θ(n+k)     
  • (C) Θ(nk)           (D) Θ(n2)

Answer: A

 

20.       Consider an instruction pipeline with five stages without any branch prediction: Fetch Instruction (FI), Decode Instruction (DI), Fetch Operand (FO), Execute Instruction (EI) and Write Operand (WO). The stage delays for FI, DI, FO,EI and WO are 5 ns, 7 ns, 10 ns, 8 ns and 6 ns, respectively. There are intermediate storage buffers after each stage and the delay of each buffer is 1 ns. A program consisting of 12 instructions I1, I2, I3,….I12 is executed in this pipelined processor. Instruction I4 is the only branch instruction and its branch target is I9. If the branch is taken during the execution of this program, the time (in ns)needed to complete the program is

  • (A) 132              
  • (B) 165          
  • (C) 176            
  • (D) 328

Answer: B
 

 

21.       A RAM chip has a capacity of 1024 words of 8 bits each (1K×8). The number of 2×4 decoders with enable line needed to construct a 16K×16 RAM from 1K×8 RAM is

  • (A) 4      
  • (B) 5  
  • (C) 6 
  • (D) 7

Answer: B

 

22.       Which one of the following is NOT logically equivalent to ¬x(y()˄z())?

  • (A) x(z)y()) 
  • (B) x(z()y))
  • (C) x(y()z)) 
  • (D) x(y)z))

Answer: Marks to All

 

Computer Science Sample Paper 1

Computer Science Sample Paper 1

Computer Science questions and answers with explanation for interview, competitive examination and entrance test. It's contains are more AGRE test in computer science as well as GATE, PSC, NET and other similar exams.

 
1.       A binary operation  on a set of integers is defined as xy=x2+y2. Which one of the following statements is TRUE about ?

  • (A) Commutative but not associative
  • (B) Both commutative and associative
  • (C) Associative but not commutative
  • (D) Neither commutative nor associative

Answer: A

 

2.       Suppose p is number of cars per minute passing through a certain road junction between 5 PM and 6PM, and p has a Poisson distribution with mean 3. What is the probability of observing fewer than 3 cars during any given minute in this interval?

  • (A) 8/(2e3)          (B) 9/(2e3)
  • (C) 17/(2e3)       (D) 26/(2e3)

Answer: C

 

3.       Which one of the following does NOT equal

 

 


Answer: A

 

4.       The smallest integer than can be represented by an 8-bit number in 2's complement form is

  • (A) -256             (B) -128
  • (C) -127             (D) 0

Answer: B

5.       In the following truth table, V=1 if and only if the input is valid.

ComputerSci6

What function does the truth table represent?

  • (A) Priority encoder     (B) Decoder
  • (C) Multiplexer             (D) Demultiplexer

Answer: A

 

6.       Which one of the following is the tightest upper bound that represents the number of swaps required to sort n numbers using selection sort ?

  • (A) O(log n)       (B) O(n)
  • (C) O(n log n)   (D) O(n2)

Answer: B

 

7.       Which one of the following is the tightest upper bound that represents the time complexity of inserting an object into a binary search tree of n nodes ?

  • (A) O(1)              (B) O(log n)
  • (C) O(n)             (D) O(n log n)

Answer: C

 

8.       Consider the languages L= Φ and L2 = {a}. Which one of the following represents L1L2*UL1* ?

  • (A) { є }               (B) Φ
  • (C) a*                  (D) { є, a}

Answer: A

 

9.       What is the maximum number of reduce moves that can be taken by a bottom-up parser for a grammar with no epsilon and unit-production (i.e., of type A→є and A→a) to parse a string with n tokens?

  • (A) n/2                (B) n-1
  • (C) 2n-1             (D) 2n

Answer: B

10.    A scheduling algorithm assigns priority proportional to the waiting time of a process. Every process starts with priority zero(the lowest priority). The scheduler re-evaluates the process priorities every T time units and decides the next process to schedule. Which one of the following is TRUE if the processes have no I/O operations and all arrive at time zero?

  • (A) This algorithm is equivalent to the first-come-first-serve algorithm.
  • (B) This algorithm is equivalent to the round-robin algorithm.
  • (C) This algorithm is equivalent to the shortest-job-first algorithm.
  • (D) This algorithm is equivalent to the shortest-remaining-time-first algorithm.

Answer: B

11.       Match the problem domains in Group I with the solution technologies in Group II.

Group I                                                  Group II

  • (P) Services oriented computing                                (1) Interoperability
  • (Q) Heterogeneous communicatingsystems               (2) BPMN
  • (R) Information representation                                   (3) Publish-find bind
  • (S) Process description                                            (4) XML

 

  • (A) P–1, Q–2, R–3, S–4         
  • (B) P–3, Q–4, R–2, S–1
  • (C) P–3, Q–1, R–4, S–2         
  • (D) P–4, Q–3, R–2, S–1

Answer: C

 

12.       The transport layer protocols used for real time multimedia, file transfer, DNS and email, respectively are

  • (A) TCP, UDP, UDP and TCP          
  • (B) UDP, TCP, TCP and UDP
  • (C) UDP, TCP, UDP and TCP          
  • (D) TCP, UDP, TCP and UDP

Answer: C

 

13.       Using public key cryptography, X adds a digital signature σ to message M, encrypts <M,σ>, and sends it to Y, where it is decrypted. Which one of the following sequences of keys is used for the operations ?

  • (A) Encryption: X’s private key followed by Y’s private key; Decryption: X’s public key followed by Y’s public key
  • (B) Encryption: X’s private key followed by Y’s public key; Decryption: X’s public key followed by Y’s private key
  • (C) Encryption: X’s public key followed by Y’s private key; Decryption: Y’s public key followed by X’s private key
  • (D) Encryption: X’s private key followed by Y’s public key; Decryption: Y’s private key followed by X’s public key

Answer: D

 

14.       Assume that source S and destination D are connected through two intermediate routers labelled R. Determine how many times each packet has to visit the network layer and the data link layer during a transmission from S to D.

ComputerSci7

  • (A) Network layer–4 times and Data link layer-4 times
  • (B) Network layer–4 times and Data link layer-3 times
  • (C) Network layer–4 times and Data link layer-6 times
  • (D) Network layer–2 times and Data link layer-6 times

Answer: C

 

15.       An index is clustered, if

  • (A) it is on a set of fields that form a candidate key.
  • (B) it is on a set of fields that include the primary key.
  • (C) the data records of the file are organized in the same order as the data entries of the index.
  • (D) the data records of the file are organized not in the same order as the data entries of the index.

Answer: C

 

16.       Three concurrent processes XY, and Z execute three different code segments that access and update certain shared variables. Process X executes the P operation (i.e., wait) on semaphores a,b and c; process Y executes the P operation on semaphores bc and d; process Z executes the Poperation on semaphores cd, and a before entering the respective code segments. After completing the execution of its code segment, each process invokes the V operation (i.e., signal) on its three semaphores. All semaphores are binary semaphores initialized to one. Which one of the following represents a deadlock-free order of invoking the P operations by the processes?

  • (A) X:P(a)P(b)P(c)       Y:P(b)P(c)P(d)          Z:P(c)P(d)P(a)
  • (B) X:P(b)P(a)P(c)       Y:P(b)P(c)P(d)          Z:P(a)P(c)P(d)
  • (C) X:P(b)P(a)P(c)       Y:P(c)P(b)P(d)          Z:P(a)P(c)P(d)
  • (D) X:P(a)P(b)P(c)       Y:P(c)P(b)P(d)          Z:P(c)P(d)P(a)

Answer: B

 

17.       Which of the following statements is/are FALSE?

  • (1) For every non-deterministic Turing machine, there exists an equivalent deterministic Turing machine.
  • (2) Turing recognizable languages are closed under union and complementation.
  • (3) Turing decidable languages are closed under intersection and complementation
  • (4) Turing recognizable languages are closed under union and intersection.

 

  • (A) 1 and 4 only           (B) 1 and 3 only
  • (C) 2 only                      (D) 3 only

Answer: C

 

18.       Which of the following statements are TRUE?

(1) The problem of determining whether there exists a cycle in an undirected graph is in P.

(2) The problem of determining whether there exists a cycle in an undirected graph is in NP.

(3) If a problem A is NP-Complete, there exists a non-deterministic polynomial time algorithm to solve A.

 

  • (A) 1, 2 and 3                (B) 1 and 2 only
  • (C) 2 and 3 only           (D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: A

 

19.       What is the time complexity of Bellman-Ford single-source shortest path algorithm on a complete graph of n vertices ?

  • (A) Θ(n2)            (B) Θ(n2logn)           
  • (C) Θ(n3)            (D) Θ(n3logn)

Answer: C

 

20.    In a k-way set associative cache, the cache is divided into v sets, each of which consists of k lines. The lines of a set are placed in sequence one after another. The lines in set s are sequenced before the lines in set (s+1). The main memory blocks are numbered 0 onwards. The main memory block numbered j must be mapped to any one of the cache lines from

  • (A) (j mod v)*k to (j mod v)*k+(k−1)
  • (B) (j mod v) to (j mod v)+(k−1)
  • (C) (j mod k) to (j mod k)+(v−1)
  • (D) (j mod k)*v to (j mod k)*v+(v−1)

Answer: A

 

21.       Which one of the following expressions does NOT represent exclusive NOR of x and y?

  • (A) xy + x'y'        (B) x⊕y'
  • (C) x'⊕y             (D) x'⊕y'

Answer: D

 

22.       Which one of the following functions is continuous at x = 3 ?

ComputerSci8

 

Answer: A

 

23.       Function f is known at the following points:

The value of 03f(x)dx computed using the trapezoidal rule is

(A) 8.983           (B) 9.003        (C) 9.017        (D) 9.045

Answer: D

 

24.       Consider an undirected random graph of eight vertices. The probability that there is an edge between a pair of vertices is ½. What is the expected number of unordered cycles of length three ?

  • (A) 1/8                (B) 1   
  • (C) 7                   (D) 8

Answer: C

 

25.       Which of the following statements is/are TRUE for undirected graphs?

P: Number of odd degree vertices is even.

Q: Sum of degrees of all vertices is even.

  • (A) P only                      (B) Q only
  • (C) Both P and Q         (D) Neither P nor Q

Answer: C
 

PSC General Awareness Test Paper-1

PSC General Awareness Test Paper 1

MCQs of General Awareness Test Paper is for those who are preparing for various Competitive Exams like UGC, NET, GATE and PSC Computer Science etc.PSC General Awareness Test Paper

 

1. Dakar is the capital of-

  1. Mozambique
  2. Syprus
  3. Senegal
  4. Romania

2. Who won the World Snooker Title in May 2010?

  1. Neil Robertson
  2. Pankaj Advani
  3. Cliff Thorburn
  4. None of the above

3. The Wenlock is the mascot of-

  1. The Commonwealth Games 2014
  2. The Olymic Games London 2012
  3. 17th Asian Games
  4. None of the above

4. Arun Bajpayee is the youngest India to mount-

  1. K2 Godwin Austin
  2. Mount Everest
  3. Dhaulagiri
  4. Kanchendzunga

5. Which movie won the Palm d' Or (Best Feature Films) Award at the 63rd Cannes Film Festival in May 2010?

  1. Our Life
  2. On Tour
  3. Uncle Boonmee Who Can Recall His Past Lives
  4. Of Gods And Men

6. Who is known as the father of Sanskrit Grammar?

  1. Kalidas
  2. Patanjali
  3. Panini
  4. None of the above

7. B.C Roy Trophy is associated with-

  1. Cricket
  2. Football
  3. Chess
  4. Hockey

8. Which Indian player was Named Rookie of the year for 2009?

  1. Rashid Khan
  2. C.Muniyappa
  3. Gaganjeet Bhullar
  4. Anirban Lahiri

9. Which of the following organization has its headquarters in Rome?

  1. European Freee Trade Association
  2. International Labour Organization
  3. Food and Agriculture Organization
  4. World Food Programme

10. The Criminal Procedure Code (Amendment) Act 2008 came into force in-

  1. January 2009
  2. January 2010
  3. January 2008
  4. None of the above

11. Somdev Devvarman is a famous player of-

  1. Tennis
  2. Billirds
  3. Snooker
  4. None of the above

12. Theorphrastus is called the father of-

  1. Astrology
  2. Anatomy
  3. Zoology
  4. Botany

13. National Youth Day is observed on-

  1. January 28
  2. January 20
  3. January 12
  4. January 15

14. Which of the following cities is famous for Tabacco Industry?

  1. Guntur
  2. Firozabad
  3. Khetri
  4. Jharia

15. Who was the first scholar to use the term Indus Civilization?

  1. Dayaram Sahni
  2. R.S Bist
  3. Rakhal Das Bennerji
  4. John Marshall

16. The recommendations of 11th Finance Commission covered the period-

  1. April 1, 2002 to March 31, 2005
  2. April 1, 2002 to March 31, 2007
  3. April 1, 2007 to March 31, 2012
  4. None of the above

17. Uranium Corporation of the India is located in-

  1. Jadugoda
  2. Thiruvanathapuram
  3. Delhi
  4. Mumbai

18. The provision of Contingency Fund of India has been made under-

  1. Article 267
  2. Article 268
  3. Article 265
  4. Article 266

19. Phylloquenone is the chemical name of-

  1. Vitamin D
  2. Vitamin E
  3. Vitamin K
  4. Vitamin C

20. Romance with Life' is a book written by-

  1. Dilip Kumar
  2. Debashees Dutta
  3. Dev Anand
  4. Hemamalini

Answers: PSC General Awareness Test Paper-1​

 

1. (3)

6. (3)

11. (1)

16. (1)

2. (1)

7. (2)

12. (4)

17. (4)

3. (2)

8. (2)

13. (3)

18. (1)

4. (2)

9. (3)

14. (1)

19. (3)

5. (3)

10. (2)

15. (4)

20. (3)